Hebrew Voices #67 – Was the Last Supper a Passover Seder

The cup of Elijah and going to the door then opening it to welcome him in. The one who goes to the door and opens it with Elijah standing there and closes the door so Elijah is still outside = this person will have the spirit of Elijah, will be one preparing in some way for the coming Messiah. The Messiah will come in his generation.

you asked him “Didn’t they also have to burn the chelev, the fats?”. So, i have whats probably an ignorant question, but if its to be roasted whole, with its head and its legs and its guts, how would you get the fats out? I know theres a cut to pour out the blood, but then did they like gut the animal for the fat then sew its guts back in? Cause until now i always pictured it completely intact aside from the cut for the blood (Im sorry that ended up so graphic)

When Moses wrote Exodus 12:22 did he knowingly lie when he said the Israelites didn’t leave their homes until the morning? If he was telling the truth then they must of killed, roasted and ate the lamb during the first 12 hours of the 14th and then spoiled the Egyptians during the second 12 hours of the 14th?

About 18 min in seems to me, to be the stepping stone of Jew haters, Marcion and Constantine to pick a very very astute Rabbi to make the YASHUA/Jesus Saviour of the world making him the Passover lamb story Christians are taught to believe??

And I guess what I am getting at is why then do we now eat them? When Matza Crackers were introduced they were (with a lot of advertizing) round. Then with more advertising they were square to help the bakeries. I’m thinking originally theywere more like hambergers(of flour).

Did the Jews actually eat unleavened crackers as we do today? I’ve always wanted to ask.

Why do you say it was leavened bread?

OK everyone,, please be blessed and wise also. The “KEY” that is missing here is the “Rightly Dividing” key. Apply it and you will discover the answer to this riddle which isn’t a riddle at all. Rightly dividing will clear up many a controversy that has arisen down through the years. Clues: 1) the bread was leavened, 2) Yeshua himself, a true master of rightly dividing called this event a “Passover”.

David – You raise a fascinating point about Lk 24:30. But there are more than one conclusion that might be drawn.

#1 Perhaps artos can refer to unleavened bread. Let’s wait for a philologist’s (e.g. Nehemia) understanding.

#2 Perhaps the Greek word artos was an inappropriate rendering. Bad Greek renderings have been demonstrated as a possibility in a few cases, e.g. Jn 6:4 and Mt 23:3. So in a controversial verse like Lk 24 I’m not yet ready to let the verse in question define the meaning.

#3 Here’s a bizarre take. Today we do not KEEP the Passover, we merely commemorate it. We cannot KEEP it outside of Jerusalem, without a priesthood, without an alter. Do we really think we are KEEPING the Feast of Unleavened Bread? After all, the meal on UB Day 1 is the Passover. So maybe we are actually only commemorating it today, consistent with Paul in 1Co 5. The problem with this interpretation is: How would they practice this in Lk 24 prior to such a “new teaching” going out? I’m not yet ready to adopt this interpretation.

Just pointing out why I’m not pedantic on this sticky Lk 24 verse. Still doing my homework.

Dan – I agree with you 100% as I’ve said elsewhere in these comments. But I’m also looking for a way to address directly this question about the actual definition of artos. If Nehemia can verify that artos is used solely for leavened bread, then I believe his scholarship and will refute those who argue otherwise. If Nehemia verifies that artos can also refer to unleavened bread then I will accept it and remove that arrow from my quiver because it would no longer be a sound argument. It is not for my own sake because I am fully convinced that the Last Supper was not Pesach; it is for a the sake of convincing opponents and refuting every one of THEIR OWN arguments.

Walt, why rely on a Greek translation which may or may not have been translated correctly – since their track record isn’t that great even when comparing LXXs? In my reasoning it couldn’t be Pesach for Last Supper, or Yeshua isn’t the True Messiah.

The 14th at sundown is the Passover. The 15th at sundown starts the feast of unleavened bread. Yeshua ate Passover, sang song at midnight on 14th to remember Egypt and death of firstborn, was arrested in wee hours of the 14th and died late afternoon on 14th as others were preparing for the Holy Day to start at sundown. The commandment is to eat unleavened bread 15th to sundown on the 21st, (7days).

They were keeping Passover on the 14th, Unleavened bread starts on the 15th.

We owned sheep and could easily slaughter 4 sheep and dress them in half a day. One for just our family or friends could be ready on the grill within an hour.

Why? I don’t see any reason why he could not eat Passover dinner and then become the sacrifice for the future generations.

The lambs are killed at sunset beginning the 14th. The whole day of the 14th is Passover. Yeshua died late afternoon on the 14th, before sundown beginning the 15th.

When the Creator says the 14th day of the 1st month is The Passover, that is what it is. It does not “slide” into the 15th. The Israelites killed a lamb at their own houses and spilled the blood into their own bucket as the 14th started at sundown. They then proceeded to paint the blood on doorposts and then roast and eat the lamb with bread and herbs. They stayed in their houses fully dressed, with bags packed in high anxiety while the destroyer massacred all the firstborn of Egypt. After midnight, while it is dark in the wee morning hours Pharaoh summoned Moshe and Aharon to take the people and go quickly. They walked all day on the 14th until even when they arrived at the sea. On the 15th at evening they went into the sea, literally finally leaving Egypt after 430 years on that selfsame day.

Following

I think the Last Supper directly influenced what would become Holy Communion, and seems to have influenced The Pesach Seder as it developed after 70 A.D., as well. Can’t wait for Part 2.

Nehemia – I implore you! The assertion that artos can be unleavened is one of several arguments used to support that the last supper was a Passover meal. The conclusion that it was not a Passover stands with or without the artos argument. But if the assertion is correct that artos need not be leavened, then we must stop wasting time with the argument. It would be an arrow to remove from our quiver. The artos definition is creating a lot of noise here and elsewhere. I have my own opinion, which is as useless and unconvincing as everyone else’s here. I can think of no better subject-matter expert than YOU to put this question to rest. An additional aspect is the claim that artos is used for the showbread in the NT and LXX (true) and that the showbread is unleavened (not convinced), using Ex 29 and the basket of the bread of consecration as proof. Finally, please comment on Michael Rood’s assertion that artos in Lk 24:30 is a bad English rendering (should be azumos). You previously provided historical plausibility to his assertion that Jn 6:4 is an unauthorized corruption, so I’d like your take on Lk 24:30, e.g. if artos can be unleavened then Lk 24 is not problematic. We need your help:
1. Must artos be leavened or can it refer to unleavened also?
2. Please clarity between the bread of the presence (showbread, Ex 25) and the bread of consecration (Ex 29).
3. Is showbread leavened or not?
4. Is artos in Lk 24:30 reliable?

Have you already addressed these questions in a book, video, article, or similar? If so please point the way. If not, please do so.

Lars – Scripture confirms Nehemia’s point that the “evening of the 14th” is between the 14th/15th, not between the 13th/14th. Lev 23:32 defines the Day of Atonement, the 10th day of the Aviv, as running from the evening of the 9th to the next evening – the 10th runs from the evening of the 9th to the evening of the 10th. Therefore “evening” belongs to the day just ending, not just starting. When applied to Passover, it shows that the sacrifice is toward the sunset at the end of the 14th. This is a scriptural definition and does not rely on tradition nor rabbinical interpretation.

Sandy – Some say there is wiggle room around the day and timing, either in the slaughter of the animals or the eating of the meal. That might be true according to tradition. But I hold that Yeshua needed no wiggle room. Everything He did was right on schedule. So He died exactly when when the time was fit, and if He ate the Passover then it was also at the appropriate time – regardless of what tradition allowed. Haven’t we learned from our Karaite friend that Yeshua was opposed to, and tearing down, tradition? So in YHWH’s perfect time the meal cannot precede the sacrifice. Tradition and wiggle room are not even part of the equation. The last supper was not the Passover.

Do you think that Yeshua (Jesus) was actually having a meal on the night of the 13th of Nisan (which would be the 14th, or the start of the day of preparation if the days started after sunset)? If he really was supposed to be the new paschal sacrifice, then it wouldn’t make sense for him to die on the day of unleavened bread. That would mean that it wouldn’t have been a Seder on various levels. (That would also explain the word for bread not being unleavened bread in the Greek)

Actual quote,

Genesis 23:14-15 KJV
[14] And Ephron answered Abraham, saying unto him,

[15] My lord, hearken unto me: the land is worth four hundred shekels of silver; what is that betwixt me and thee? bury therefore thy dead.

anon; only partially true. azumos is “uneavened”, zumos is leavened, and artos can be either. english analogy would be “unleavened-leavened-bread”.

I commented on this previously but since it’s a rebroadcast, I’d like to do so again. Very interesting and informative study. Again, Dr. Cohen assumes that the apparent prohibition against the afikomen at the end the Pesach meal as stated in the Mishnah, is due to avoid carousing. Is that even logical? Which observant Jews would take a solemn festival like Pesach, then turn it into a bacchanalia. It’s more likely that it was a prohibition against the practices of Messianic Jews who in fact saw great meaning not only in the process but also in the character of the matzah itself. By the 12th century when again mentioned, the afikomen practice had taken its current form devoid of messianic meaning, and safely practiced by Jews everywhere. The second portion of the study touches on this, how rituals and practices were likely passed back and forth.

We aren’t allowed to bend YAH’s laws. They would have had enough men/priest’s/levites there to assist and get the job done efficiently.

What kind of door’s do you think they had Egypt? A door is a rectangle the upper lintel and the side post’s and the thresh hold. The pattern of the blood would resemble the Hebrew letter Cheth. I’ve never painted blood over a door, but I do celebrate Passover and have for year’s. For myself, the blood on the door post is a picture of a person’s head. The blood over the door is YAH’s word written on our conscience, protecting our thought’s which exists in the forehead. The blood on either sides protects our eyes and ear’s from perversion, everything under the sun that man uses to try and separate us from YAH’s truth.

Afikomen a blackmail? 😂 How about a ransom, or price paid for someone, or in the symbology of the event, something broken for us, aka Messiah (think 30 pieces of silver).

Father and Son are metaphors to aid in understanding “samenes of kind” as in “begotten” (Elohim-God) and “full inheritance.”

God seeks to be reunited with His bride who is made new or clean (aka the new covenant, we are what’s new, the covenant is the same one, now written on our softened hearts). The husband’s death is what makes the former wife available again. That He is resurrected makes her available to Him.

Strong’s isn’t the best dictionary to rely upon for translation. BDB (Brown-Driver-Briggs) is better.

Read Genesis creation story to better understand YHVH’s calendar, including when each 24-hour day begins (and ends).

Another possibility is the blood was applied to the doorpost in the form of an ancient tav, which was the shape of a cross. Why? Exodus 12:13, says, “The blood shall be a sign ….” “Sign” is a usually unspoken word “ath,” which consists of aleph-tav, which could be represented as only the tav which means “sign” or “mark.”. Even then, they were pointing to the cross as part of atonement, but the real focus was and is the pesach (Yeshua, who brings salvation).

When Yeshua broke bread during the Last Supper Passover, the Greek word for
“bread” is artos (Matt 26:26; Mark 14:22; Luke 22:19; 1 Cor. 10:16‐17; 11:23. The
Jewish‐Greek definition of artos (as used in the Septuagint) is a generalized
Greek word which applied to ALL types of bread (including matzah or leavened) and was often used to translate the Hebrew word lechem (“bread”). Also, Yeshua knew what Judas was going to do by leaving the Last Supper, but the disciples thought “he [Judas] was leaving the supper to buy things we have need of for the Feast.” That “feast” day [was the next day] and was the official day for the Passover sacrifice adjudicated by the Beit Din court which had determined when the Passover lambs would officially be sacrificed at the Temple [the next day]. Yeshua’s Last supper was not the official “Passover day” when the Passover was sacrificed at the Temple. Yeshua was apparently eating a lamb-less supper according to the Pharisee’s belief of when the New Moon had occurred (the day prior to the official New Moon sanctified by the Beit Din court a day later). The Pharisee’s thought the Passover should have been sacrificed the day prior to what the Bet Din Court had determined.

The Passover lamb is eaten with unleavened bread as the 15th day begins at evening. Messiah died earlier that day on the 14th at 3 p.m., so His last supper with the disciples the prior evening was eaten with leavened bread.

So you are saying the Messiah and 2 of his disciples ate leavened bread during the Days of Unleavened Bread?

Miri, not sure where you’re getting this. Lev 23 sets the time of Passover on Aviv 14, and Unleavened bread on Aviv 15. Not 7 days.

One of my more favorite passages because the discussion actually starts on 1Cor4:14 – 1Cor5:1-13, Paul is commenting about the leaderless church which is adopting “theology” to their own devices. It took a long time to understand 1Cor5 without context, especially as the Chapter refers to Incest, and expelling evil. If according to Mt 10:6, and Mt 15:24, Jesus’ mission statement is to go to the Lost sheep of Israel and turn them back to YHVH, who YHVH “divorced”, Jesus is simply stating the obvious to lead Israel to T’shuvah. I cringe every time when a mainstream Christian claims that the Church is the Bride of Christ. This is what 1Cor5 is talking about. Without leadership, the Church elevates the SON to MARRY the FATHER’S EX. Rather than turning the wayward “bride” back to YHVH. Roman recognized this and HAD to assert the Trinity to sidestep this, But at the time 1Cor was written, Constantine had not yet done his dirty work.

Gospel of John has best Torah aligned timeline. Ch 12: Jesus arrives in Bethany 6 days before the Passover. When the dialog continues is after sunset on the 8th of Aviv beginning on the 9th when “The next day”
would refer to Shabbat, on the 10th. Jesus entry into Jerusalem on Shabbat (where he was at the temple which was holding services.) This is NOT during the time of Feast of Unleavened Bread, nor could it have been the Passover (else John 12:1 would be wrong). In addition, action against Jesus during the feasts would lead to defilement, so much so, that Caiaphas would not enter Pilate’s for that stated reason. It is unlikely that for similar reasons they would not have had Jesus arrested at any time on Shabbat, which leaves the evening of Shabbat (11th of Aviv) for both the last supper and Jesus’ arrest. It fits Torah that the lamb is selected on the 10th and inspected for 3 days (11-12, 12-13, 13-14) when it is killed last afternoon. The reference to taking him down from the cross “because tomorrow is the Sabbath” is a translation issue, of the first day of the feast of Unleavened Bread.

With regard to the number of animals to be sacrificed is a Talmudic tradition which is still argued that you can’t have a proper Pesach sacrifice because the Temple does not currently exist. The issue is that the Pesach sacrifice is a PERSONAL sacrifice and does not have a Temple component, nor does the blood need to be poured out at the Altar. (I believe these constraints were foisted against Ex 12:47, which says if you are circumcised and keep the feasts (Pesach) then you are as a Native, and from numerous scriptures, “there is one Law for the native and the sojourner”. This is the key to being grafted legally into Israel. It’s no wonder that Talmudists want to create a means of exclusivity.)

Artos is leavened; Azumos is unleavened.

It was not during the days of unleavened bread, which is 7 days after the sacrifice Passover.

I am delighted, thank you for affirming and confirming the understanding my husband and I had from long study. The last year was so upside down keeping the Passover season with people who did things differently. I am grateful to find my conscience is satisfied listening here. We, do the best they can.

Your Point?

In Egypt, the blood of the pesach lamb was put on the door-posts and the lintel, forming a sketch of a cross at the entrance of the safe houses where the pesach lamb was;
in the Temple, the blood of the pesach lamb was put to the altar at the entrance to the shrine where God´s presence dwelt;
on the cross, the blood that the pesach lamb shed for forgiveness of sins applies to those accepting his sacrifice and enables them enter into God´s presence and become living houses of eternal God;
Yehovah saves, Halelujah

I would agree, hence my question. Some commentators (Christian) say the volume of Passover animals to be sacrificed required more than one day, so Yeshua’s disciples could do theirs the day before and Yeshua would still be on the cross on the “official” day. I am looking for confirmation or denial of that from Jewish sources.

1Co 5:8 Therefore let us keep the feast; not with old leaven, nor with the leaven of malice and wickedness, but with the unleavened (G106 azumos) bread of sincerity and truth.

G106 (Thayer)
azumos
Thayer Definition:
1) unfermented, free from leaven or yeast
1a) of the unleavened loaves used in the paschal feast of the Jews
1b) metaphorically free from faults or the “leaven of iniquity”

What happened BEFORE the evening? YHVH created Light. In the Hebrew (not in the simple way people read the English) it shows creation began, then evening cane and that concluded the first day. The next day began the next morning. I can’t help you see it. Unwrap the “padding” of the Instructions that the Pharisees laid down. Evening to Evening is Babylonian. Midnight is Gregorian. It’s natural and elementary if you stop sticking with the lies of the Pharisees. Also study Joseph of Arimathea. Do you believe he went to Pilot, took Yeshuas body, prepared it BEFORE sundown? Do your own thinking, your own study. I’ll give you a hint in the book of Luke it indicates that Joseph worked all night.
“EPIPHOSKO” Strong’s #2020 Greek.
Don’t use partial scriptures thinking you have a grasp on the whole picture. We must study to show ourselves approved unto Yah (not man).

Sorry, artos can mean any type of bread as Luke 24:30 testifies. This was during the days of Unleavened Bread. Tgey wiuld not gave leavened bread

“The Last Supper” was not the Passover, as Yeshua could not eat the Passover and be the Passover at the same time.

Gen 1:5 …And the evening and the morning were the first day.

Mat 26:26 And as they were eating, Jesus took bread (G740 artos) and blessed it, and broke it, and gave it to the disciples, and said, Take, eat, this is My body.

Luk 24:30 And it happened as He reclined with them, taking the loaf (G740 artos), He blessed it, and breaking it, He gave to them.

G740 (Strong)
artos
From G142; bread (as raised) or a loaf: – (shew-) bread, loaf.

Look at Luke 24:30. Is the leavened bread also?

It is not commanded to be eaten by midnight, Ex 12:10 reads none shall be left until morning. Morning (strong’s #1242 Boqer) means morning boqer. Just like the manna!!! They weren’t out picking up manna at midnight as this guest suggested the Passover was to be eaten by. Stop allowing traditional pharaseeical Judaism to cloud your understanding. The day begins in the morning at first light. “Let there be light” AND is a conjuction, clearly something happened before night was there. He created the light. If your month begins at the sighting of the first sliver, your day should too. Darkness is the time of the wicked, not for the children of Light! Passover is the 14th. The next day, 15th, begins at first light, and the First DAY of Unleavened Bread. There’s too much muscle that has to be used to listen to folks explain the 14th & 15th. Too much…

Very good teaching. I have thought that what distinguished the supper from the Seder was Christ was eating leveled bread.

Thanks so much, listened again and always gain new insight. My primary question I would like to understand is – did the Jews have two days in which to have their pesach sacrifice? Otherwise, if Yeshua claimed to be the passover lamb, why could he eat a passover meal before He was on the cross, the lambs being killed the next day? Thank you!

Was Luke 24:30 leavened bread also?

I personally do not believe He/Yeshua was eating a Passover meal at all. He was the Passover Lamb. & the bible (unless you tell me it was translated incorrectly) says He broke the loaf which is leavened bread. The understanding I have is that was a Rabbinic celebration of the end of His teaching with His disciples. & that when He told Judas to go & do what he needed to do quickly that Yeshua was getting the leaven out of His house. When He was washing their feet after the celebratory meal He said you are all clean but not all of you He was referring to Judas.

Nehemiah, thanks so much. i get alot out of your analyses and your guests. Thank you for bringing the Hebrew understanding to so many parts of the Brit Hadasha that, as a non-Jew, I have little knowledge of.

I understand the comment that Yeshua’s supper didn’t have an afikomen but my take might be that many things he did had a hidden understanding that wasn’t made clear until later, and in some cases much later. Perhaps he was just foreshadowing the afikomen for our time when it would become common. Since God is outside of time, there really wouldn’t be a conflict there, and many times the Scriptures note prophetic happenings in two sentences when a large gap will occur between the 2 fulfillments.

Shalom and keep up the good work

I wonder if Jesus then started a new Passover since he must have kept the dinner at the beginning of the 14th and died in the afternoon of the 14th and buried at the very end of the 14th. Why wouldn’t the disciples question that?
Thomas

New Jewish Publication Society or Jewish Study Bible is worth having

The Seder became effective through the imagination of storytelling, similarly as Radio has been called ‘Theater of the Mind’. I don’t think it was Pesach yet at the Last Supper, but rather on Preparation Day before Passover. Wouldn’t it be interesting though, if the Last Supper was the inspiration for both the Pesach Seder as well as Holy Communion? Hmmmm…

The Passover Passages for comprehensive study. a) Exodus 12:13
b) 1 Corinthians 5:7 c) Exodus 23:15 d) Joshua 5:10 e) Numbers 9:13
f) John 13:1-3 g) Numbers 9:1-5 h) Leviticus 23:4-8 l) Deuteronomy 16:1-8
m) John 2:13-23 n) Mathew 26:17-28 o) Mark 14:12-25 p) Exodus 12:1-51

HalleluYah!! Finally someone who shares the truth and the real essence of this whole ritualized matter. Thank you, Lars. Shalom-shalom, Yehovah’s Perfect Peace to all reading this now.

One famous Seventh Day Adventist, Backaotte said there was no Lamb at the Supper that Jesus was at.

Hello Jon you Baptised me, best wishes. Would you ever have a chanch to read Pagan Christianity by Viola. He goes into the Sophists who influenced Christianity in the one man talking many listening concept of religion. In Acts 12:12,13 we have early Christians meeting. I think they are meeting like the Jews of the day and even maybe Jesus, praising God in the Assembly or the grand Assembly as it says in the Psalms. Good to see you again.

Why did they eat unleavened bread in Egypt but today we eat unleavened crackers?

Shaolom, Nehemia.
Yeshua’s meal was a regular supper. They ate it after sundown the 13th of aviv, that is the beginning of the 14th., preparation day BEFORE the Holy Day of Unleavened bread. He did not come to be part of the Holy Day that “pass over” time, but to fulfill or complete the “shadow picture” of the Passover Lamb by becoming the final Lamb. He gave himself as an atonement for your and my sins so that we can come back to our Father, cleanced and ready to follow his Word, the living Torah, Yeshua.
They did eat leavened bread (arthos). That is another proof it was not the Passover meal. Yeshua could not break his own Torah!

It’s the second time I’ve listened to this study and not really in total agreement. The prohibition on indulging the afikomen from the 12th century presumes an already existing practice. If it’s from the Greeks certainly at least 2,000 years older, so not of12th century origin. It can also be a prohibition for observant Jews because it had been practiced not by Greeks but by Messianic Jews. The prohibition then is to distance Jews from Messianic practice. Just a thought.
Oscar

do you have Bibles for sale or can you suggest one?

Actually the Greek word is not restricted to Leavened as Luke 24:30 and in the Sept. Lev 2:4 Lev 8:26 & Num 6:19 testify

John 18:28 proves that the “last supper” the night before was Not the Passover. “They themselves did not go into the palace {Rome’s Fort Antonia}, lest they should be defiled, but that they might eat the Passover {which would be later that evening}.”

Nehemiah…. you’re right, I have an account and was being cheeky… and cheap.

Great study, tho feel the Jaubert hypothesis on calendric issues may have bit of traction…
Most Important, Happy Passover/DUB

Hi Jonathan, You can sign up for a free account with JSTOR and read three article online for free.

Nehemiah… great study w S Cohen!
Can we obtain a copy of Bahr’s.The Seder of Passover and the Eucharistic Words from you and not jstor [$34!] Thank you

Apologies… excellent segment on Passover vs Seder….!

Wow that’s extremely interesting in light of what source material I’ve heard over this journey..

Can’t wait for part 2 either.

Nehemia what options do we take for the actual celebration date when we bring the Feast of Unleaven Bread when there are two shabbats according to the calendars in use? One here in the US, and another in Israel

And, what of this practice of allowing a gentile to “purchase” our chamatz when we remove it from our dwelling, and then us buying it back? When did this traditional practice originate?

When will Part Two of this interview be released????

Hi, Yes that is one explanation, that it was possible to eat the pascal lamb both on the first and second evening of the fourteenth of Nissan. Yeshua ate it on the first evening ( Luke 22;13) and the Zadokim ate it on the second evening. (John 18:28) And Yeshuas trial and cruxifiction takes place on the day of the 14:th , the preparation day. Then we have Nehemia Gordon arguing in another post, that evening the 14:th/15:th of Nissan is what is commanded in Exodus 12. I dont know much about the history of this intra-jewish point of contention. But if its been around since the 2nd Temple period its ancient indeed.

Luke 24:30 uses artos during Unleavened Bread so it can mean either unleavened or leavened

arton or artos mean bread, can be both leavened or unleaved. Unleaved bread is called artos or arton several places in the Septuagint lev 2; num 6

The last supper was indeed a Passover meal since the Gospels Matthew ,Mark, and Luke called it ‘passover”. Yeshua also called it’ Passover”. In order to understand the verse in John 18:28 It is good to take into accountability the custom of some Jews during the period of the second temple to slain the Passover Lam on the afternoon of nisan 14 and eat it at the beginning of nisan 15. So this mean that some Jews kill the passover lam at the start of nisan 14, this according to the command in exodus 12, and other groups such as sadducees, kill the lam on the evening of nisan 14 and eat it on nisan 15

Only if the Last Supper took place in the 12th century or later 🙂

I just stumbled upon the Fast of the First Born. could it be that Jesus and his disciples where having the last super before his fast which was done by the first born the day before Passover?

I am not totally agree with this perspective. it is indeed obvious that Yeshua’s Last Supper was not similar to the modern day Seder ,since Yeshua ate the Pesach Lam. However, there are some similarities with the Seder and these are:
1. The cups of wine. In Luke 21 Yeshua use cups of wine , although this was not commanded in Torah. The cups of wine were added by the Rabbis
2.Yeshua spoke the bracha before each cup as in the Seder, where the bracha is spoken before each cup.
3.The dipping of food we see in John 13;26 as in the Seder.

Lars, Shanah Tovah! The Gospel of John seems to align the best, both if Yeshua would be killed as the “Passover lamb”, but in alignment with the other events. It’s pretty safe to say that events can not be viewed without “Hebrew goggles”. Time wise, Yeshua is anointed on the 5th day of the week (8thday of first month), rides into Jerusalem (10th day of the first month) and teaches on Shabbat at the Temple. After Shabbat, occurs the “last supper” which could not be a Passover Seder. On that evening after Shabbat, Yeshua is arrested. After 3 days of inspection which includes Caiaphas (bearing iniquities against Yeshua) pressuring Pilate to kill Yeshua, who is found without fault. That has to occur not on a Shabbat, nor after the 14th, as Caiaphas didn’t want to be defiled at Pilate’s court. Yeshua is crucified on the afternoon of the 14th day of the first month (4th day of week). He is taken down (dead already?) and placed in the tomb prior to the 15th day. 3 days in the tomb, and Mary goes to the tomb early on the 1st day of the week (after Shabbat) and finds the tomb empty. I have a problem that on the first day of the feast of unleavened bread, that any Pharisees would go to Pilate and insist on a Roman guard, which is not mentioned in any other Gospel.

Artone = leavened bread

Now According to the gospels, the Last supper of Yeshua ve-ha’Talmidim occured the Evening BEFORE the preparation day. As Yeshua was killed on the day before the Sabbath of the unleavened Bread. therefore it seems to me that “last supper” was one evening to early, ( eg, the evening of 13:th/14:th of Nissan) to be a Pascal meal as the lambs/goats were not yet slaughtered. If this could be discussed i would be grateful.

Shalom! Thank you for your work. My understanding is that the earliest most complete Haggadah goes back to the 9th century and resembles much of what we have today. Have you heard of or come across this document?

wow! 1st, the professor encumbers the requirement of the Temple altar to qualify the pouring out of the blood of the Paschal lamb sacrifice (Takanot). I assume this is where Christian doctrine places so much emphasis on “the Blood” yet says that the Torah no longer applies due to sacrifices requiring the Temple, : no temple – no sin sacrifice possible. More importantly, If Talmudists declare that there can’t be a Pashal sacrifice without the Temple, then per Ex 12:48, there is no way to keep Pesach, and therefore no sojourner can be grafted in as native under one Law.

PLEASE!!! Bring on part 2! This was a Cliffhanger. ?

Was “the LAST SUPPER” celebrated with leavened or unleavened bread?

Thank you, Nehemiah. That was a very interesting show as usual.
As far as Yeshua’s “Last Supper” being a Seder or not, I found the best understanding to this topic compiled in the comments of Michael Rood’s “Chronological Gospels”. According to this commentary the Last Supper was not a Seder, especially as the bread was leavened according to the Greek translation of that word which would be a big clue. Could there have been a deeper meaning or possibly a rehearsal of Melchizedek’s bread and wine?
I don’t know, but after reading it from that perspective it gave me more things to chew on!!

No, they are not the same. Passover is the 14th day of the 1st month. The Day of Atonement is the 10th day of the 7th month, so almost 6 months apart.

WOW Nehemia! This one professional interview discusses and contains numerous historically relevant explanations for the current Pesach ceremonious practices brought forth through time to our so called Seder by “tradition without credibility”. This validated by the cited 12th C origins in chronology that many of these practices were not even done before then.
For this Karaite family, this has determined our prayers recited, practices of what is served on that table, and most importantly, our BELIEFS of What Pesach truly means to us today since we no longer offer sacrifices in remembrance of this high holiday.

So looking forward to the Second part of this interview!

Toda raba

Perhaps the name of the Last Supper should be changed to the ‘First Supper’. It may be the first example of a Pesach remembrance meal, ‘Do this in remembrance of me’. After all, did Yeshua not tell the disciples that the Temple would be destroyed? Could this have been a last instruction to his disciples?

Listening to your discussion on the transformative function of ritual brought to mind a recent experience I had at the Museum of the Bible in D.C. There is an interactive exhibit called The Hebrew Bible. At a point in the exhibit, you and all the others attending, stand in the dark around a single poignant sculpture of an Israelite family while the events of Passover are told. And then you continue on into the exodus, so to speak. It was remarkable – sensing the power, the fear, the relief. The artist(s) desire seems to be the same as the direction from the Mishnah and Haggadah – placing the person in Egypt at that specific point in time.
Thank you for bringing these interesting discussions, looking forward to part 2.

Can you explain. Is the 14 day of Nison is the day of attonment. Was the passover on the the day of attonment.

Shalom from Lansing, Michigan ? I enjoy listening to your teachings and just listened to your part #1Segment about Passover. My question is, will you also be posting part #2 ?

Thank You For All You Do, You have been one of the Blessing in my walk towards Truth ? Shalom, LuEvea “Lu” Zamarron